If the authors of our constitution and bill of rights had intended that the general public not have the right to keep and bear arms, then why didn't they try disarming them from the beginning? I think 200 years of indifference to gun ownership ought to pretty much set the precedent on how the law ought to be interpreted now. What really bothers me is why, when the liberals first started making the argument on what the 2nd ammendment really meant, no one brought up the fact that we've always allowed law abiding citizens to keep personal firearms, and none of the leaders of this country have ever thought about disarming them, until lately, that is. If Washington really thought that only state militias should have firearms, then why didn't he collect everyone's up and put them in the armories after the war? I'd say it's obnoxiously obvious that the people who wrote the law had absolutely no intention of ever disarming the public. How can any sane person possibly come to any other conclusion?